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Forum Discussion
Tagged VLAN not working on a GS324T
Hi all, I have a peculiar problem that has made me pull my hair out for quite some time. The setup is easy: A Sophos firewall has 3 VLANs defined next to the default VLAN. We have a trunk from t...
bcnx,
Welcome to the community! :)
What is the model/brand of the next switch connected to the GS234T? Is it also a GS234T?
The ports connecting the GS324T and the next switch should be tagged with a PVID of 1.
Also, be informed that you can daisy chain or cascade a number of switches since there is no limit on it. However, the good practice would be up to 2-3 switches daisy chained. Its because the more switch that you daisy chain will add latency on the network.
Regards,
DaneA
NETGEAR Community Team
Hi DaneA ,
We've tried an HP Aruba and a TPLink switch.
Taqgging with a PVID: we have the problem on the VLANs not tagged by 1. Will tagging with PVID 1 help us in that case? Also, it was my understanding that the default VLAN 1 should never be tagged, correct?
We are currently only daisychaining 2 switches so I think we should be alright there,
Cheers for your input!
BC
bcnx wrote:
Taqgging with a PVID: we have the problem on the VLANs not tagged by 1. Will tagging with PVID 1 help us in that case?
If you want the VLAN 1 untagged, the PVID on these ports must be set to PVID 1, too. This is not about taging the VLAN 1. SImilar of you configure other VLAN access ports (only one of course), the VLAN x and the PVID must be set to x, too.
The PVID does define the VLAN incoming frames are assigned to.
If you configure a different PVID thant the [U]ntaged VLAN, you create some kind of asymmetrical VLAN config, the untagged inboud frames will go to the wrong VLAN - obviously, the VLAN 1 [U]ntagged can't work in a transparent way.
bcnx wrote:
Also, it was my understanding that the default VLAN 1 should never be tagged, correct?
For simplicity, it's a good policy to run the primary VLAN untagged.
Hi again,
schumaku wrote:
bcnx wrote:Taqgging with a PVID: we have the problem on the VLANs not tagged by 1. Will tagging with PVID 1 help us in that case?
If you want the VLAN 1 untagged, the PVID on these ports must be set to PVID 1, too. This is not about taging the VLAN 1. SImilar of you configure other VLAN access ports (only one of course), the VLAN x and the PVID must be set to x, too.
It was my understanding that the PVID is a setting for tagging frames that enter the switch without tagging ID and that you use it for untagged ports. However, I'm not sure how this will help for the traffic on the other VLAN (60) which we need to work. Even more, PVID equal to 1 is the default setting and things did not work with that setting.
The PVID does define the VLAN incoming frames are assigned to.
Exactly, but how does this relate to tagged traffic on a trunk port for another VLAN?
If you configure a different PVID thant the [U]ntaged VLAN, you create some kind of asymmetrical VLAN config, the untagged inboud frames will go to the wrong VLAN - obviously, the VLAN 1 [U]ntagged can't work in a transparent way.
That is how I understand it. Mind you, using the trunk port as an untagged port for the VLAN we like to contact to, did start working when the PVID was set to that particular VLAN. But that was just a test, we need a trunk connection for all VLANs, se we tagged the uplink/trunk port for all VLANs except for the default VLAN which remains untaged.
bcnx wrote:Also, it was my understanding that the default VLAN 1 should never be tagged, correct?
For simplicity, it's a good policy to run the primary VLAN untagged.
Exactly, that is what we do. And PVID has always been set to 1, yet VLAN 60, which is tagged, does not work in combination with another switch. It's still a mystery as to why, both switches have a tagged port for VLAN 60.
Thanks for your input!
BC
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