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Forum Discussion
VLAN available without having been added to the list in the switch
Hello. I just enabled a new VLAN -12 on my network with a variety of other switches, the router is a Cisco Meraki device and the GS110TPV3 is downstream after a few other switches. So I enabl...
However this VLAN12 does reach theGS110TPV3 - just defining a VLAN alone does not do much. The question is on how the upstream switches and port are delivering that VLAN 12 to the GS110TPV3, e.g. as an untagged network for example.
If oyu don't want to become the VLAN 12 ever reaching the Netgear switch (in whatever way), don't configure it on the upstream port where you connect this switch.
Thanks for your reply.
VLAN 12 is not the default VLAN (1 is) and its being tagged all the way over. Otherwise I would be having horrendous issues with two untagged VLANs at once, no?
So why does this VLAN 12 ever reach the Netgear switch, e.g. tagged? Not defining the VLAN on a switch does not imply other tagged VLAN can pass a switch.
The VLAN 12 can be accessed if you connect a system configured as tagged for the VLAN 12.
It goes like this
Router with VLAN 12 allowed ----> Switch with VLAN 12 tagged on all ports ----> GS110TPV3 switch with VLAN 12 never tagged or even entered at all on any ports ---> device wired to GS110TPV3 that can hit an IP on VLAN 12.
I am trying to understand how, without the GS110TPV3 having any idea VLAN12 exists this works. Are you suggesting that the device on GS110TPV3 has access because the uplink port GS110TPV3 is connected to passes VLAN12 tagged?
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