Does Auto-VoIP somehow allow multiple untagged VLANs?
Hi,
I don't know a ton about VLANs but as I always understood it, only a single VLAN could be untagged on any port on a switch. Is this not the case? I have Auto-VoIP enabled with voice traffic on VLAN 4088. Phones are in a completely separate LAN from my data. Phones connected to the switch work, have the right IP address assigned via DHCP, but the phones seem to think there's no VLAN involved (VLAN = 0). Data, whether piggybacked on the phone's PC port or plugged directly into the switch gets the address they should have, which is different than the phones.
I have the VLANs set to UNTAGGED for both the data (vlan 1) and the voice (vlan 4088). If I try to tag the voice traffic, the phones stop working.
In my configuration, data is sent to another switch and voice is set directly to a port on our gateway (which is also our DHCP server). I do have there uplink ports tagged (1 for data, 4088 for voice).
Does auto-VoIP do some sort of pseudo-vlan thing to send voice traffic where it should go? I'm baffled.
I have the VLANs set to UNTAGGED for both the data (vlan 1) and the voice (vlan 4088). If I try to tag the voice traffic, the phones stop working.
Why do you wonder? You can't -never- assign untagged ingress frames a switch into two different VLANs. Never. Mess is predictable. What will happen is you cause what is known as asymmetrical VLANs - something not supported here anyway. To be correct: It's the PVID defined on the port defining the one and only VLAN these frames will be assigned to.
